NISM-Series-V-D Diagnostic Quiz

Question 1 of 20

20 questions weighted across all 3 modules of the syllabus. Answer, get the explanation immediately, and see your score at the end.

All 20 questions & answers

For review after you've attempted the quiz above — or as a quick reference. Back to the interactive quiz.

1. A mutual fund's NAV is calculated as:

  • A. Net Assets × Outstanding Units
  • B. Net Assets ÷ Outstanding Units — correct
  • C. Unit Capital × Face Value
  • D. TER ÷ AUM

NAV = Net Assets ÷ Outstanding Units, recalculated daily via mark-to-market.

2. Entry loads on mutual fund units are currently:

  • A. Permitted up to 1%
  • B. Banned; sale price equals NAV — correct
  • C. Permitted for institutions only
  • D. Charged only on SIPs

Entry loads are banned entirely — the sale price always equals the NAV.

3. An EUIN identifies:

  • A. An individual distributor's own ARN
  • B. An employee of an institutional distributor, under that institution's ARN — correct
  • C. A SEBI registration number
  • D. A custodian's license

EUIN identifies an individual employee of an institutional distributor, who operates under the institution's own ARN rather than a separate one.

4. Equity-oriented fund LTCG (holding period over 12 months) is taxed at:

  • A. 10%, no exemption
  • B. 12.5%, with Rs. 1.25 lakh exempt per year — correct
  • C. 20%, no exemption
  • D. 15%, Rs. 2 lakh exempt

LTCG on equity-oriented funds is 12.5%, with the first Rs. 1.25 lakh of gains per year exempt.

5. Since when must mutual fund schemes benchmark to the Total Return Index (TRI)?

  • A. April 2017
  • B. February 2018 — correct
  • C. January 2020
  • D. July 2024

Schemes have been required to benchmark to TRI (not PRI) since February 1, 2018.

6. A derivative's value is:

  • A. Independent of any underlying asset
  • B. Derived from an underlying asset — correct
  • C. Always equal to the underlying's current price
  • D. Fixed permanently at issuance

A derivative's value derives from (depends on) an underlying asset, rather than existing independently.

7. A trader using derivatives purely to reduce an existing risk exposure is a:

  • A. Speculator
  • B. Hedger — correct
  • C. Arbitrageur only
  • D. Regulator

A hedger uses derivatives to reduce existing risk; a speculator takes on new directional risk hoping to profit.

8. A free-float market capitalisation index weights constituents by:

  • A. Total shares outstanding
  • B. Shares actually available for public trading — correct
  • C. Equal weight regardless of size
  • D. Price per share only

Free-float weighting uses only the shares actually available for public trading, excluding promoter/locked-in holdings — the method most major Indian indices now use.

9. A futures contract, compared to a forward, is:

  • A. Less standardised
  • B. Standardised, exchange-traded, with daily margining — correct
  • C. Never subject to margin
  • D. Only available OTC

Futures are standardised, exchange-traded contracts with daily mark-to-market margining; forwards are customised, bilateral OTC agreements.

10. On the expiry date, futures and cash (spot) prices are expected to:

  • A. Diverge permanently
  • B. Converge — correct
  • C. Become completely unrelated
  • D. Differ by the full cost of carry always

As expiry approaches, the basis (difference between futures and spot) narrows toward zero — futures and cash prices converge.

11. Delta measures:

  • A. Change in option premium per unit change in the underlying's price — correct
  • B. Time decay
  • C. Sensitivity to implied volatility
  • D. The strike price

Delta measures how much an option's premium changes for a one-unit change in the underlying asset's price.

12. Theta measures an option's sensitivity to:

  • A. Changes in volatility
  • B. Time decay as expiry approaches — correct
  • C. The underlying's price only
  • D. Interest rates only

Theta captures time decay — how an option's premium erodes as expiry approaches, all else equal.

13. Put-call parity describes the relationship between:

  • A. A call, a put, and the underlying's price (same strike/expiry) — correct
  • B. Two unrelated calls
  • C. Only futures contracts
  • D. Only the risk-free rate alone

Put-call parity ties a call option, a put option, and the underlying asset's price together for the same strike and expiry; violations create arbitrage opportunities.

14. The term structure of interest rates refers to:

  • A. Stock prices over time
  • B. Yields plotted across different maturities (the yield curve) — correct
  • C. Currency exchange rates
  • D. Commodity price trends

The term structure of interest rates is the yield curve — yields across different maturities for similar-credit-quality instruments.

15. Accrued interest on a bond refers to:

  • A. Interest already fully paid out
  • B. Interest accumulated since the last coupon, owed to the seller on a sale — correct
  • C. A late-payment penalty
  • D. Interest on equity shares

Accrued interest is interest that has built up since the last coupon payment, which the buyer owes the seller when a bond trades mid-period.

16. Exchange-traded Interest Rate Futures (IRF) on GOI securities use a lot size equal to notional bonds of face value:

  • A. Rs. 50,000
  • B. Rs. 2 lakh (2,000 bonds) — correct
  • C. Rs. 10 lakh
  • D. Rs. 1 crore

One lot of IRF on a GOI security equals notional bonds of face value Rs. 2 lakh (2,000 bonds), per the exchange contract specifications.

17. The tick size for IRF contracts is:

  • A. Rs. 0.01
  • B. Rs. 0.0025 — correct
  • C. Rs. 1.00
  • D. Rs. 0.10

The tick size (minimum price movement) for IRF contracts is Rs. 0.0025.

18. IRF contracts on GOI securities are settled:

  • A. Through physical delivery of the bond
  • B. In cash — correct
  • C. Partly cash, partly bond delivery
  • D. Never settled

Exchange-traded IRF on GOI securities are cash-settled — the difference between contract and final settlement price is paid in cash.

19. OTC interest rate derivatives, compared to exchange-traded ones, are:

  • A. Standardised and centrally cleared
  • B. Customised and bilaterally negotiated, without central clearing — correct
  • C. Identical in every respect
  • D. Banned in India

OTC derivatives are customised and negotiated bilaterally between two parties, without the standardisation or central clearing of exchange-traded contracts.

20. What is the correct assessment structure of the NISM-Series-V-D exam?

  • A. 100 questions, 100 marks, no negative marking
  • B. 150 questions, 150 marks, 10% negative marking — correct
  • C. 135 questions, 150 marks, 25% negative marking
  • D. 200 questions, 3 hours, no negative marking

V-D has 150 questions worth 1 mark each (150 marks total), a 3-hour duration, 60% pass mark, and 10% negative marking per wrong answer.