NISM-Series-XXI-A Diagnostic Quiz

Question 1 of 20

20 questions weighted across the syllabus. Answer, get the explanation immediately, and see your score at the end.

All 20 questions & answers

For review after you've attempted the quiz above — or as a quick reference. Back to the interactive quiz.

1. Saving is best described as the difference between:

  • A. Risk and return
  • B. Money earned and money spent — correct
  • C. Assets and liabilities
  • D. Equity and debt

Saving = money earned minus money spent. Investment is committing those savings with an expectation of a higher future amount.

2. A retired investor wanting regular payouts from their portfolio is pursuing which objective?

  • A. Capital preservation
  • B. Current income — correct
  • C. Tax saving only
  • D. Speculation

Current income is the objective pursued when an investor wants regular payouts (dividends, interest, rental income) rather than capital appreciation — common among retirees.

3. Which regulator is the primary regulator of India's securities markets?

  • A. RBI
  • B. SEBI — correct
  • C. IRDAI
  • D. PFRDA

SEBI is the primary securities markets regulator, and also regulates Portfolio Managers under the SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020.

4. Unsystematic risk in equity investing can be reduced through:

  • A. Market-wide hedging only
  • B. Diversification across many securities — correct
  • C. Avoiding equity entirely
  • D. Increasing leverage

Unsystematic (company/sector-specific) risk can be reduced through diversification; systematic (market-wide) risk cannot.

5. A bond's price and interest rates generally move:

  • A. In the same direction
  • B. In opposite directions — correct
  • C. With no relationship
  • D. Only in line with equity

Bond prices and interest rates move inversely — a fundamental relationship tested throughout the fixed income chapter.

6. Using a derivative to reduce an existing portfolio's risk exposure is called:

  • A. Speculation
  • B. Hedging — correct
  • C. Arbitrage only
  • D. Insider trading

Hedging uses derivatives to reduce existing risk; speculation takes on new directional risk hoping to profit from a price move.

7. A portfolio manager cannot accept funds or securities worth less than:

  • A. Rs. 5 lakh
  • B. Rs. 50 lakh — correct
  • C. Rs. 5 crore
  • D. Rs. 50 crore

SEBI regulations set a Rs. 50 lakh minimum investment per client for PMS, with specified exceptions for accredited investors and co-investment portfolio managers.

8. In a discretionary PMS, investment decisions are:

  • A. Approved by the client for every transaction
  • B. Made and executed by the manager independently, within the client's needs — correct
  • C. Made solely by SEBI
  • D. Not permitted currently

A discretionary portfolio manager independently manages client funds according to their needs, without needing approval per transaction.

9. The maximum exit load a portfolio manager can charge in the FIRST year of investment is:

  • A. 1%
  • B. 2%
  • C. 3% — correct
  • D. 5%

Per the PMS Circular, exit load is capped at 3% in year 1, 2% in year 2, 1% in year 3, and nil thereafter — and no lock-in is permitted instead.

10. The 'High Water Mark' in PMS performance fee calculation refers to:

  • A. The lowest value the portfolio has ever reached
  • B. The highest value the portfolio has ever reached — correct
  • C. The initial investment amount, forever
  • D. The benchmark index level

A performance fee is charged only on gains above the portfolio's prior peak value (its High Water Mark) — not simply on recovering from a loss.

11. Correlation between two asset classes measures:

  • A. Their absolute price level
  • B. How their returns move in relation to one another — correct
  • C. Their total expense ratio
  • D. Their credit rating

Correlation measures how two assets' returns move together; combining low-correlation assets can reduce portfolio risk without sacrificing expected return.

12. Portfolio 'rebalancing' is undertaken to:

  • A. Increase transaction costs without benefit
  • B. Bring the actual asset mix back toward the target allocation — correct
  • C. Eliminate future reviews
  • D. Convert the portfolio to cash permanently

Rebalancing restores the portfolio's actual asset mix to its target allocation after market movements have caused it to drift.

13. The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as:

  • A. (Return − Risk-free Return) ÷ Beta
  • B. (Return − Risk-free Return) ÷ Standard Deviation — correct
  • C. Return ÷ Risk-free Return
  • D. (Return − Risk-free Return) ÷ Variance

Sharpe Ratio = (Return − Risk-free Return) ÷ Standard Deviation — excess return per unit of total risk.

14. Performance attribution analysis seeks to determine:

  • A. How much of a return came from asset allocation versus security selection — correct
  • B. The exact launch date of the portfolio
  • C. Only the total expense ratio
  • D. The manager's personal holdings

Performance attribution breaks a portfolio's return into the contribution from asset allocation decisions versus individual security selection.

15. Within a PMS, capital gains on the underlying holdings are taxed:

  • A. Under one unified PMS rate, unrelated to asset type
  • B. Following the same asset-wise capital gains rules as if held directly — correct
  • C. Only when the account is closed
  • D. At a flat 0% always

PMS gains follow ordinary asset-wise capital gains rules (equity, debt, derivatives) — unlike mutual funds, which are taxed at the scheme level.

16. NRIs investing in PMS typically route transactions through:

  • A. A regular undesignated savings account only
  • B. The Portfolio Investment Scheme (PIS) — correct
  • C. A cryptocurrency exchange
  • D. No special route is required

The Portfolio Investment Scheme (PIS) is the RBI-governed route NRIs typically use to invest in Indian securities, including via PMS.

17. The core regulation governing registration and conduct of Portfolio Managers is:

  • A. SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020 — correct
  • B. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, alone
  • C. The Companies Act, 2013, alone
  • D. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949

The SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020 is the core regulation covering registration, conduct, and operations for Portfolio Managers.

18. Recommending unsuitable products or concealing material risks for higher compensation is an example of:

  • A. Sound professional judgment
  • B. Mis-selling, under SEBI's Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations — correct
  • C. Standard, acceptable practice
  • D. Enhanced client protection

Concealing risks or recommending unsuitable products for higher compensation is mis-selling, a violation under SEBI's Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations, 2003.

19. What is the correct assessment structure of the NISM-Series-XXI-A exam?

  • A. 100 questions, 100 marks, no negative marking
  • B. 100 questions, 100 marks, 10% negative marking — correct
  • C. 150 questions, 150 marks, 25% negative marking
  • D. 50 questions, 50 marks, 1 hour

XXI-A has 100 MCQs worth 1 mark each (100 marks total), a 2-hour duration, 60% pass mark, and 10% negative marking per wrong answer.

20. A portfolio manager is prohibited from:

  • A. Segregating client holdings
  • B. Deriving direct or indirect personal benefit from client funds — correct
  • C. Handling investor complaints
  • D. Acting in a fiduciary capacity

Portfolio managers are explicitly prohibited from deriving any direct or indirect benefit from client funds or securities — a core fiduciary obligation.